2007 Skydiver's Information Manual
A United States Parachute Association Publication

Contents:
Summary
Section 7-1: Exhibition jumping
Section 7-2: Professional Exhibition Rating
Section 7-3: Instructions for completing FAA Form 7711-2

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Section Summary:

A demonstration jump, also called a display or exhibition jump, is a jump at a location other than an existing drop zone done for the purpose of reward, remuneration, or promotion and principally for the
benefit of spectators. One purpose of USPA is to promote successful demonstration jumps as part of an overall public relations program for the sport.

These recommendations cover the following: experience, ability and attitude, the Professional Exhibition (PRO) Rating, landing area size, technical considerations, insurance, and how to complete the FAA authorization request form.

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Contents:
A. Definition
B. How to approach a demo jump
C. Experience and ability
D. Attitude
E. Landing areas
F. Turbulence and target placement
G. Maximum winds
H. Equipment
I. Aerial maneuvers
J. Crowd control
K. Ground signals
L. Announcer
M. Other activities
N. Advice and approval
O. Insurance
P. Related Readings

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A. Definition

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An exhibition jump, also called a demonstration or display jump, is a jump at a location other than an existing drop zone done for the purpose of reward, remuneration, or promotion and principally for the benefit of spectators.

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B. How to approach a demo jump

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1. As with all jumps, safety must be the first consideration.

2. Next, the most important aspect of a demonstration jump is landing in the target area.

a. Good aerial work is not impressive if the jumpers land out.

b. A stand-up landing in the target area is usually the most visible and impressive portion of a demonstration jump.

3. Demo jumps have many variables which must be considered, including wind speed and direction, equipment type, jumper experience, target areas, and alternate landing areas.

4. Each proposed demo needs to be evaluated on an individual basis.

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C. Experience and ability

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1. Open Field and Level 1, as defined by USPA and accepted by the FAA (all of the following):

a. USPA C license or higher

b. minimum 200 jumps

c. 50 jumps within the past 12 months

d. five jumps within the previous 60 days using the samd model and size canopy to be used on the demonstration jump

2. Level 2 and Stadium, as defined by USPA and accepted by the FAA (all of the following):

a. hold the USPA PRO rating (required by the BSRs)

b. 50 jumps within the past 12 months

c. five jumps within the previous 60 days using the samd model and size canopy to be used on the demonstration jump

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D. Attitude

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1. While a good demonstration jump provides great public relations for the sport, a poorly performed one may severely damage skydiving's image.

a. Therefore, it is important to recognize and understand that sometimes it may be in the best interest of the individual jumper and skydiving in general not to make the jump at all.

b. A mature attitude should be exhibited at all times.

2. Promise no more than you can produce and then perform with expertise and efficiency.

3. Take no unnecessary chances.

4. Know what you are getting into before getting there.

5. Recognize and deal with the air of excitement that surrounds a demo jump.

6. Make mature and professional judgments in dealing with unforeseen circumstances.

7. Delay or cancel the demo when conditions are not right for a safe jump.

8. Jumpers and support staff should have a sharp, clean appearance to make a better impression and present a professional image.

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E. Landing areas

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1. All FAA-authorized demonstration jumps are classified as either Open Field, Level 1, Level 2, or Stadium.

2. USPA with the FAA's concurrence defines these areas as described in Table 7.A, Size and Definition of Landing Areas (inset on previous page).

3. Minimum landing areas for PRO Rating holders:

a. For PRO Rating holders, there should be no less than 5,000 square feet of landing area per four jumpers.

b. An additional 800 square feet per jumper is required for any jumper landing within 30 seconds of the last of any four jumpers.

4. Alternate landing areas (run-offs or escape areas) must be considered when evaluating a demonstration jump.

a. Small targets often become acceptable when alternates are available.

b. The alternate landing area must be of sufficient size to accommodate, as a minimum, a Level 1 landing area for the jumper(s) and as not to create a hazard to persons or property on the ground.

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F. Turbulence and target placement

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1. Recommended minimum distances from major obstacles should never be disregarded, especially in windy conditions.

a. Major obstacles affect air currents and can cause turbulence.

b. Major obstacles include large buildings and trees.

c. A single tree, pole, fence, etc., is not considered as a major obstacle.

d. Stadium jumps usually involve turbulence that should be considered.

2. Jumpers should be thoroughly familiar with the turbulent-air flight characteristics of their canopies.

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G. Maximum winds

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1. When considering wind limits, include wind turbulence and the capabilities of the reserve canopy.

2. USPA recommends that all demonstration jumps be conducted with a maximum 15-mph ground wind limitation.

3. For stadium jumps, the wind should be measured at the top of the stadium, and turbulence should always be anticipated.

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H. Equipment

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1. Main canopy:

a. Open Field, Level 1, and Stadium: ram-air type recommended by USPA

b. Level 2: ram-air required by FAA

2. Reserve canopy:

a. Open Field: should be steerable

b. Level 1, Level 2, and Stadium: ram-air reserve required by FAA

3. Smoke should be hand-carried or attached to an easily ejectable boot bracket. Warning: military type (M-18) smoke grenades are extremely hot and should not be hand held.

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I. Aerial maneuvers

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1. Aerial maneuvers should be rehearsed, just as any professional would give a show a dry run.

a. Participants should be aware of their exit point, freefall drift, and opening point.

b. Landing on target takes priority over air work.

c. One should be prepared to break off, track, or pull high if necessary.

2. Some suggested freefall maneuvers:

a. barber pole:

(1) Two or more jumpers with two or more colors of smoke exit and hook up.

(2) The jumpers then spin the formation creating a giant barber pole.

b. starburst: Three or more jumpers exit and form a star, then break, make a 180° turn, and track apart.

c. cutaway:

(1) One jumper opens, cuts away, and deploys a second main canopy.

(2) The jumper is required to wear three parachutes, one of which must be a TSO'ed reserve, and the reserve must be attached to a TSO'ed harness.

3. Some suggested canopy maneuvers:

a. smoke

(1) After opening, ignite smoke and drop on a ten-foot line.

(2) Make a series of turns in one direction.

(3) The line should be releaseable from the upper end if it becomes necessary.

(4) Be careful in crossing over obstacles on approach.

(5) Make sure the smoke container won't burn through the line.

b. flag

(1) A flag may be attached to the rear lines or dropped below the jumper on a weighted line attached to the leading edge.

(2) A ground crew should catch the flag so that it won't touch the ground.

c. canopy formation

(1) Canopy maneuvers should be performed by only experienced CRW jumpers.

(2) Efforts to build canopy formations should stop no lower than 2,500 feet AGL.

(3) It is much more difficult and dangerous to land a canopy stack on target than it is to land canopies separately.

d. Radical canopy maneuvers should not be performed below 500 feet, where the jumper has only about 30 seconds to set up for landing.

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J. Crowd control

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1. Collisions with spectators present a great danger to the spectator, the jumper, and the well-being of the sport.

a. Reasonable precautions should be taken to keep the spectators out of the landing area.

b. People not sitting may move toward the target, but they will not always move out of the way of the landing jumper.

2. Jumpers should pick up their equipment immediately after landing.

a. Some spectators may decide that skydiving equipment makes good souvenirs.

b. Jumpers who plan on packing in the crowd should protect against equipment damage by spectators' drinks and cigarettes.

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K. Ground signals

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1. Ground-to-air communication must be maintained (BSRs).

a. This may be accomplished by a radio, smoke, or a panel.

b. It is best if a backup to the primary signal exists in case the primary signal fails.

2. If a Certificate of Authorization (FAA Form 7711-1) is issued, it may require ground-to-air radio communication.

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L. Announcer

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1. An experienced skydiver on the public address system contributes to a quality demonstration jump.

2. The announcer can point out the aircraft, explain each phase of the jump, give general information, and explain any unusual occurrences, such as a reserve activation or a jumper missing the target.

3. The announcer can contribute to crowd control by asking spectators not to enter the target area.

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M. Other activities

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1. Activities after the jump add to the entertainment of the spectators.

2. Packing demonstration:

a. Team members pack their parachutes in view of the spectators.

b. Jumpers should pack slowly, explaining each step and answering questions.

c. Often, this facet of the demonstration is more effective if one person packs while another does the talking.

3. Answering questions:

a. Respond to spectator questions politely and factually.

b. Direct persons interested in jumping to USPA or distribute brochures advertising a drop zone.

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N. Advice and approval

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1. Approval may need to be secured from federal, state, or local officials before a demonstration jump can be performed.

2. Local approval

a. It may be necessary to contact local authorities prior to a jump.

b. The FARs require airport management approval prior to a jump onto the airport
(FAR 105.23).

c. A call to the local police is recommended.

(1) They may offer to help in crowd control.

(2) With prior knowledge of the jump, they are less likely to respond to a call, such as, "There has been a mishap, and people are falling out of the sky."

3. State approval

a. It may be necessary to contact the state department of aviation.

b. The local S&TA or Instructor Examiner notified of the demonstration jump should be able to assist the organizers in meeting all state requirements.

4. FAA approval: Almost every jump requires either that the FAA be notified or an air traffic control authorization be received (FAR 105.25).

a. For any jump, the air traffic control facility having jurisdiction over the airspace at the first intended exit altitude must be notified at least one hour before the jump.

b. Congested areas and open air assembly of persons:

(1) FAR 105.21.a. states that no jump be made over or into a congested area or an open air assembly of persons until a certificate of authorization has been issued (FAA Form 7711-1).

(2) Application for authorization may be filed with the local Flight Standards District Office.

(3) The FAA's instructions on how to fill out the application, FAA Form 7711-2, are included in SIM Section 7-3.

(4) The local S&TA or Instructor Examiner notified of the demo should be able to assist the organizers in meeting all federal requirements.

5. Notification and advice:

a. The jumper is required by the BSRs to contact the local S&TA or an Instructor Examiner for demonstration jump advice.

b. The information should be provided as outlined in FAR 105.15.a.

c. The S&TA or an I/E providing advice for a demonstration jump should use this section as a guideline.

d. The I/E whose advice was sought should contact the S&TA for the area or the drop zone at which the flight will originate.

e. The S&TA should assist the jumpers in meeting all applicable state and federal requirements and check that the requirements have been met.

f. All authorizations and permits should be carried on the jump by the organizer or team captain.

g. The S&TA should investigate both the proposed area and the participants.

(1) The S&TA or I/E may recommend the use of specific jumpers or advise the organizer to use only individuals meeting certain experience requirements.

(2) General advice allows the organizer greater flexibility in making last-minute substitutions of aircraft and participants.

h. When consulted for a demonstration jump, the S&TA may recommend certain additional limitations such as wind speed and direction, altitude, etc.

i. The S&TA should consider the information in this section when making recommendations and should ask the question, "All things considered, are the chances of performing a safe and professional demonstration jump reasonably good?"

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O. Insurance

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1. USPA individual membership liability skydiving insurance (property damage and bodily injury), which is included as a benefit of USPA membership, is not valid for demonstration jumps.

2. Contact USPA Headquarters for information on demonstartion jump insurance.

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P. Related Readings

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1. FAA Part 105, Parachute Operations

2. FAA AC 105-2, Sport Parachute Jumping

3. FAA AC 91-45, Waivers: Aviation Events

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Contents:
A. What is a PRO Rating?
B. Qualifications and procedures

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A. What is a PRO Rating?

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1. Working in conjunction with the FAA, the USPA issues Professional Exhibition (PRO) Ratings to any USPA member who has met the current requirements for the rating.

a. This rating identifies the jumper as highly proficient and accurate in canopy control.

b. A PRO Rating holder is also knowledgeable in the areas of coordination with the Federal Aviation Administration, obtaining insurance coverage, and providing a professional demonstration of skills.

2. A USPA PRO Rating is not required for all demonstration jumps, but may be a valuable advantage in working with the FAA.

3. The PRO Rating is recognized by the FAA and serves as a certificate of proficiency.

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B. Qualifications and procedures

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1. To initially qualify for the PRO Rating, an applicant must:

a. be a current member of USPA

b. possess a USPA D license

c. have at least 500 jumps on a ram-air canopy

d. make a series of ten jumps into a circle ten meters in diameter (landing within five meters of the center point) using the same model and size canopy.

(1) The applicant must pre-declare each jump to count toward the requirements for the PRO rating.

(2) Once the applicant has started the series, he or she may make non-declared jumps; however, non-declared jumps may not count toward the accuracy requirements for the rating.

(3) All of the ten pre-declared jumps in the series must be successful for any in the series to count toward the rating; and in the event of an unsuccessful jump, the applicant must start a new series.

(4) On each declared jump, the applicant must make the first contact and stop within the ten-meter circle and make all landings standing up.

(5) All declared jumps must witnessed by either an S&TA, Instructor Examiner, or USPA Regional or National Director.

(6) The applicant must obtain signatures of the eligible verifying official for each of the ten jumps.

e. score at least 75% on the PRO Rating exam

f. forward the completed application form to his or her USPA Regional Director for his signature and include:

(1) a 1" x 1" full face photo of the applicant

(2) the completed PRO Rating exam

(3) the rating fee

(4) have the PRO Rating Proficiency card signed off by an I/E, S&TA, or PRO Rating holder indicating that the PRO Rating applicant has received training in the following areas:

(i) ground crew-and served as a ground crew member on at least one Level 1 or Level 2 demo jump

(ii) flag rigging-and made at least one jump with a flag

(iii) smoke rigging-and made at least one jump with smoke

(iv) NOTAM filing and certificates of authorization

(v) crowd control

(vi) post-jump procedures

2. The USPA Regional Director will forward the initial application to USPA Headquarters.

3. Conditions

a. The smallest canopy used during qualification will be the smallest size canopy to be used for minimum landing area (Level 2) jumps, and the canopy size will be noted on the PRO Rating card.

b. USPA will issue an annual PRO Rating expiring not less than 12 months from the last date on the rating application.

c. If a PRO Rating holder's competence is questioned by a FAA or USPA official (including S&TAs), the PRO Rating holder may be required to reaffirm his or her proficiency.

d. To requalify on a smaller canopy:

(1) The rating holder must make three successive, pre-declared jumps, making the first contact and stopping within a circle ten meters in diameter with that canopy.

(2) All landings must be made standing up and be verified by an S&TA, I/E, USPA Judge, or a Regional or National Director.

4. Annual renewal requirements: Within the previous 12 months the PRO holder must perform all the following verified by the signature of a current S&TA, I/E, USPA Judge or Board member (you may not renew yourself) and forward a completed PRO renewal application to USPA Headquarters:

a. Make at least 50 jumps.

b. Submit a 1" x 1" full face photo.

(1) optional

(2) incurs an additional charge for a new card

c. Include the current renewal fee.

d. and any of the following:

(1) perform an accuracy landing within 25 cm. of target center (need not be a stand-up landing) in the presence of a current USPA Regional-, National-, or U.S./FAI International Judge; USPA Regional or National Director; or Instructor/Examiner.

(2) perform a stand-up landing, making the first contact and stopping within a circle ten meters in diameter (landing within five meters of the center) in the presence of a current Regional-, National-, or U.S./FAI International Judge; Regional or National Director; S&TA, or I/E

(3) perform a Level 2 (as defined by USPA and accepted by the FAA) demo jump in the presence of any of the above mentioned USPA officials

5. Lapsed PRO Rating renewal requirements

a. In the event that a PRO Rating holder allows his or her rating to lapse for two years or longer, the initial landing qualification requirements must be met.

b. The canopy used for requalification will be the smallest-sized canopy to be used for minimum landing area (Level 2) jumps.

c. The canopy size will be noted on the PRO Rating card.

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(From FAA Advisory Circular 91-45C)

1. Preparing FAA Form 7711-2. Items from the form are discussed below for purposes of clarity and uniformity of its use.

a. Items 1 and 2, Name of Organization/Name of Responsible Person. If you are a representative of an organization, then the organization's name should appear in Item 1 and your name, as the organization's representative, for application purposes should appear in Item 2. If you are not representing an organization, the term N/A should be entered in Item 1 and the applicant's name in Item 2.

b. Item 3, Permanent Mailing Address. Self-explanatory.

c. Item 4, FAR Section and Number to be Waived.

(1) All applicable FAR sections and numbers must be listed in this item. If you are unsure which FAR sections have to be waived, consult the FSDO for guidance before filling out this section.

(2) An application for a parachuting operation should state that authorization is requested in accordance with FAR 105.15 or 105.19.

d. Item 5, Detailed Description of Proposed Operation. It is sufficient to use the terms "airshow," "aerobatic contest," "aerobatic practice area," "parachute demonstration jump," or "air race" to describe the event.

e. Item 6, Area of Operation. The description must depict the flight maneuvering area as a cubic or cylindrical cell of airspace, e.g., "a rectangle bounded by the N/S runway (or other definable geographical reference) and a point 5,000 feet east from the surface to 7,000 feet." At off-airport sites, the boundaries should be described using easily identifiable landmarks. Current, properly marked charts, maps, drawings, or photographs of the area of operation (not required for parachute demonstration jumps at aviation events) must accompany the application. The FAA recommends that sponsors use a 7.5 series Topographic Quadrangle Map, published by the U.S. Geological Survey (Scale 1:24,000). Any depiction submitted must include scale indications of the flight lines, showlines, race courses, the location of the aviation event control point, police dispatch, ambulance, and firefighting equipment. Photographs and to-scale diagrams may be submitted as supplemental material to aid in the FAA's evaluation of a particular site. All flight operations conducted under the waiver shall be limited to the area defined in the FAA-approved application.

f. Item 7, Time Period. List the dates requested for the aviation event and for any press previews that are scheduled. Alternate event dates should also be included in this item.

g. Item 8, Aircraft Make and Model. If the type of aircraft and/or the names of the pilots are not known at the time the application is submitted, the FAA shall accept the application with a statement, "list of aircraft and/or pilot's names will be furnished on [date.]" Once the list has been supplied, last-minute Substitutions (parachutists or pilots) must show appropriate qualifications to the FAA inspector-in-charge at the aviation event before they are allowed to perform.

h. Item 9, Sponsorship. Self-explanatory.

i. Item 10, Permanent Mailing Address of Sponsor Self-explanatory.

j. Item 11, Policing. Furnish a detailed explanation of how crowd control will be handled.

k. Item 12, Emergency Facilities.

(1) Place an "X" in the appropriate box or boxes.

(2) Other: A sponsor seldom needs to fill in this block. However, the following is an example of how the "Other" block might prove useful. In one event, the sponsor had a helicopter and pilot continually ready for emergency transportation of spectators or performers who might be injured on the airport or who may become ill during the event. Additionally, a military-trained firefighter and a medic were standing by the helicopter with extinguishers in case an aircraft had an accident anywhere in the operating area. In this particular case, by describing this "Other" emergency facility, the applicant could have been relieved of having to show anything in the preceding blocks.

l. Item 13, Air Traffic Control. Describe the method or methods of radio communication frequencies and/or the prearranged ground-to-air signals to be used during the aviation event. A description of the ground-to-air recall signal must also be included.

m. Item 14, Schedule of Events. List the performers in the order that they will appear. (See paragraph 19 this AC for more detail.)

n. Item 15, Certification. The applicant must sign in this block and on each page of the application.

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